On Fri, Jul 06, 13:52, Peter Zijlstra wrote: > This then yields: > > P(\Union_{i=1..n} u_i) ~= \Sum_{k=1..n} (-1)^(k-1) (n choose k) u^k > > Which unfortunately isn't a series I found a sane solution for, but > numerically (see below) we can see it very quickly approaches 1 when n > >> 1. Isn't this series just 1 - (1 - u)^n? So yes, it converges quickly to 1 if u is a probability. Andre -- The only person who always got his work done by Friday was Robinson Crusoe